Cardio Test Drill I
1. Which of the following arteries primarily feeds the anterior wall of the heart?
a. Circumflex artery
b. Internal mammary artery
c. Left anterior descending artery
d. Right coronary artery
2. When do coronary arteries primarily receive blood flow?
a. During inspiration
b. During diastole
c. During expiration
d. During systole
3. Which of the following illnesses is the leading cause of death in the
a. Cancer
b. Coronary artery disease
c. Liver failure
d. Renal failure
4. Which of the following conditions most commonly results in CAD?
a. Atherosclerosis
b. DM
c. MI
d. Renal failure
5. Atherosclerosis impedes coronary blood flow by which of the following mechanisms?
a. Plaques obstruct the vein
b. Plaques obstruct the artery
c. Blood clots form outside the vessel wall
d. Hardened vessels dilate to allow the blood to flow through
6. Which of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease cannot be corrected?
a. Cigarette smoking
b. DM
c. Heredity
d. HPN
7. Exceeding which of the following serum cholesterol levels significantly increases the risk of coronary artery disease?
a. 100 mg/dl
b. 150 mg/dl
c. 175 mg/dl
d. 200 mg/dl
8. Which of the following actions is the first priority care for a client exhibiting signs and symptoms of coronary artery disease?
a. Decrease anxiety
b. Enhance myocardial oxygenation
c. Administer sublignual nitroglycerin
d. Educate the client about his symptoms
9. Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of the following procedures?
a. Cardiac catheterization
b. Coronary artery bypass surgery
c. Oral medication administration
d. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
10. Prolonged occlusion of the right coronary artery produces an infarction in which of he following areas of the heart?
a. Anterior
b. Apical
c. Inferior
d. Lateral
11. Which of the following is the most common symptom of myocardial infarction?
a. Chest pain
b. Dyspnea
c. Edema
d. Palpitations
12. Which of the following landmarks is the corect one for obtaining an apical pulse?
a. Left intercostal space, midaxillary line
b. Left fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
c. Left second intercostal space, midclavicular line
d. Left seventh intercostal space, midclavicular line
13. Which of the following systems is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration?
a. Cardiac
b. Gastrointestinal
c. Musculoskeletal
d. Pulmonary
14. A murmur is heard at the second left intercostal space along the left sternal border.
Which valve area is this?
a. Aortic
b. Mitral
c. Pulmonic
d. Tricuspid
15. Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of cardiac damage?
a. Lactate dehydrogenase
b. Complete blood count
c. Troponin I
d. Creatine kinase
16. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with myocardial infarction?
a. To sedate the client
b. To decrease the client's pain
c. To decrease the client's anxiety
d. To decrease oxygen demand on the client's heart
17. Which of the followng conditions is most commonly responsible for myocardial infarction?
a. Aneurysm
b. Heart failure
c. Coronary artery thrombosis
d. Renal failure
18. What supplemental medication is most frequently ordered in conjuction with furosemide (Lasix)?
a. Chloride
b. Digoxin
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
19. After myocardial infarction, serum glucose levels and free fatty acids are both increase. What type of physiologic changes are these?
a. Electrophysiologic
b. Hematologic
c. Mechanical
d. Metabolic
20. Which of the following complications is indicated by a third heart sound (S3)?
a. Ventricular dilation
b. Systemic hypertension
c. Aortic valve malfunction
d. Increased atrial contractions
21. After an anterior wall myocardial infarction, which of the following problems is indicated by auscultation of crackles in the lungs?
a. Left-sided heart failure
b. Pulmonic valve malfunction
c. Right-sided heart failure
d. Tricuspid valve malfunction
22. Which of the following diagnostic tools is most commonly used to determine the location of myocardial damage?
a. Cardiac catheterization
b. Cardiac enzymes
c. Echocardiogram
d. Electrocardiogram
23. What is the first intervention for a client experiencing myocardial infarction?
a. Administer morphine
b. Administer oxygen
c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
d. Obtain an electrocardiogram
24. What is the most appropriate nursing response to a myocardial infarction client who is fearful of dying?
a. "Tell me about your feeling right now."
b. "When the doctor arrives, everything will be fine."
c. "This is a bad situation, but you'll feel better soon."
d. "Please be assured we're doing everything we can to make you feel better."
25. Which of the following classes of medications protects the ischemic myocardium by blocking catecholamines and sympathetic nerve stimulation?
a. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Narcotics
d. Nitrates
26. What is the most common complication of a myocardial infarction?
a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Heart failure
c. Arrhythmias
d. Pericarditis
27. With which of the following disorders is jugular vein distention most prominent?
a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. Heart failure
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Pneumothorax
28. What position should the nurse place the head of the bed in to obtain the most accurate reading of jugular vein distention?
a. High-fowler's
b. Raised 10 degrees
c. Raised 30 degrees
d. Supine position
29. Which of the following parameters should be checked before administering digoxin?
a. Apical pulse
b. Blood pressure
c. Radial pulse
d. Respiratory rate
30. Toxicity from which of the following medications may cause a client to see a green halo around lights?
a. Digoxin
b. Furosemide
c. Metoprolol
d. Enalapril
31. Which ofthe following symptoms is most commonly associated with left-sided heart failure?
a. Crackles
b. Arrhythmias
c. Hepatic engorgement
d. Hypotension
32. In which of the following disorders would the nurse expect to assess sacral eddema in bedridden client?
a. DM
b. Pulmonary emboli
c. Renal failure
d. Right-sided heart failure
33. Which of the following symptoms might a client with right-sided heart failure exhibit?
a. Adequate urine output
b. Polyuria
c. Oliguria
d. Polydipsia
34. Which of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac performance in clients with heat failure by increasing ventricular contractility?
a. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Diuretics
d. Inotropic agents
35. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system produces which of the following responses?
a. Bradycardia
b. Tachycardia
c. Hypotension
d. Decreased myocardial contractility
36. Which of the following conditions is most closely associated with weight gain, nausea, and a decrease in urine output?
a. Angina pectoris
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Left-sided heart failure
d. Right-sided heart failure
37. What is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. Atherosclerosis
b. DM
c. HPN
d. Syphilis
38. In which of the following areas is an abdominal aortic aneurysm most commonly located?
a. Distal to the iliac arteries
b. Distal to the renal arteries
c. Adjacent to the aortic branch
d. Proximal to the renal arteries
39. A pulsating abdominal mass usually indicates which of the following conditions?
a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. Enlarged spleen
c. Gastic distention
d. Gastritis
40. What is the most common symptom in a client with abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. Abdominal pain
b. Diaphoresis
c. Headache
d. Upper back pain
41. Which of the following symptoms usually signifies rapid expansion and impending rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. Abdominal pain
b. Absent pedal pulses
c. Angina
d. Lower back pain
42. What is the definitive test used to diagnose an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. Abdominal X-ray
b. Arteriogram
c. CT scan
d. Ultrasound
43. Which of the following complications is of greatest concern when caring for a preoperative abdominal aneurysm client?
a. HPN
b. Aneurysm rupture
c. Cardiac arrythmias
d. Diminished pedal pulses
44. Which of the following blood vessel layers may be damaged in a client with an aneurysm?
a. Externa
b. Interna
c. Media
d. Interna and Media
45. When assessing a client for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, which area of the abdomen is most commonly palpated?
a. Right upper quadrant
b. Directly over the umbilicus
c. Middle lower abdomen to the left of the midline
d. Midline lower abdomen to the right of the midline
46. Which of the following conditions is linked to more than 50% of clients with abdominal aortic aneurysms?
a. DM
b. HPN
c. PVD
d. Syphilis
47. Which of the following sounds is distinctly heard on auscultation over the abdominal region of an abdominal aortic aneurysm client?
a. Bruit
b. Crackles
c. Dullness
d. Friction rubs
48. Which of the following groups of symptoms indicated a ruptured abdominal aneurysm?
a. Lower back pain, increased BP, decreased RBC, increased WBC
b. Severe lower back pain, decreased BP, decreased RBC, increased WBC
c. Severe lower back pain, decreased BP, decreased RBC, decreased WBC
d. Intermittent lower back pain, decreased BP, decreased RBC, increased WBC
49. Which of the following complications of an abdominal aortic repair is indicated by detection of a hematoma in the perineal area?
a. Hernia
b. Stage 1 pressure ulcer
c. Retroperitoneal rupture at the repair site
d. Rapid expansion of the aneurysm
50. Which hereditary disease is most closely linked to aneurysm?
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Marfan's syndrome
d. Myocardial infarction
51. Which of the following treatments is the definitive one for a ruptured aneurysm?
a. Antihypertensive medication administration
b. Aortogram
c. Beta-adrenergic blocker administration
d. Surgical intervention
52. Which of the following heart muscle diseases is unrelated to other cardiovascular disease?
a. Cardiomyopathy
b. Coronary artery disease
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Pericardial Effusion
53. Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy can be associated with childbirth?
a. Dilated
b. Hypertrophic
c. Myocarditis
d. Restrictive
54. Septal involvement occurs in which type of cardiomyopathy?
a. Congestive
b. Dilated
c. Hypertrophic
d. Restrictive
55. Which of the following recurring conditions most commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy?
a. Heart failure
b. DM
c. MI
d. Pericardial effusion
56. What is the term used to describe an enlargement of the heart muscle?
a. Cardiomegaly
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Myocarditis
d. Pericarditis
57. Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions?
a. Pericarditis
b. Hypertension
c. Obliterative
d. Restricitve
59. Which of the following cardiac conditions does a fourth heart sound (S4) indicate?
a. Dilated aorta
b. Normally functioning heart
c. Decreased myocardial contractility
d. Failure of the ventricle to eject all the blood during systole
60. Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely used in the treatment of cardiomyopathy?
a. Antihypertensive
b. Beta-adrenergic blockers
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Nitrates
Thursday, March 08, 2007 | Labels: cardio | 0 Comments
Cardio Test Drill I (answers and rationale)
1. Which of the following arteries primarily feeds the anterior wall of the heart?
a. Circumflex artery
b. Internal mammary artery
c. Left anterior descending artery
d. Right coronary artery
The left anterior descending artery is the primary source of blood for the anterior wall of the heart. The circumflex artery supplies the lateral wall, the internal mammary artery supplies the mammary, and the right coronary artery supplies the inferior wall of the heart.
2. When do coronary arteries primarily receive blood flow?
a. During inspiration
b. During diastole
c. During expiration
d. During systole
Although the coronary arteries may receive a minute portion of blood during systole, most of the blood flow to coronary arteries is supplied during diastole. Breathing patterns are irrelevant to blood flow
3. Which of the following illnesses is the leading cause of death in the
a. Cancer
b. Coronary artery disease
c. Liver failure
d. Renal failure
Coronary artery disease accounts for over 50% of all deaths in the
4. Which of the following conditions most commonly results in CAD?
a. Atherosclerosis
b. DM
c. MI
d. Renal failure
Atherosclerosis, or plaque formation, is the leading cause of CAD. DM is a risk factor for CAD but isn't the most common cause. Renal failure doesn't cause CAD, but the two conditions are related. Myocardial infarction is commonly a result of CAD.
5. Atherosclerosis impedes coronary blood flow by which of the following mechanisms?
a. Plaques obstruct the vein
b. Plaques obstruct the artery
c. Blood clots form outside the vessel wall
d. Hardened vessels dilate to allow the blood to flow through
Arteries, not veins, supply the coronary arteries with oxygen and other nutrients. Atherosclerosis is a direct result of plaque formation in the artery. Hardened vessels can't dilate properly and, therefore, constrict blood flow.
6. Which of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease cannot be corrected?
a. Cigarette smoking
b. DM
c. Heredity
d. HPN
Because "heredity" refers to our genetic makeup, it can't be changed. Cigarette smoking cessation is a lifestyle change that involves behavior modification. Diabetes mellitus is a risk factor that can be controlled with diet, exercise, and medication. Altering one's diet, exercise, and medication can correct hypertension.
7. Exceeding which of the following serum cholesterol levels significantly increases the risk of coronary artery disease?
a. 100 mg/dl
b. 150 mg/dl
c. 175 mg/dl
d. 200 mg/dl
Cholesterol levels above 200 mg/dl are considered excessive. They require dietary restriction and perhaps medication. Exercise also helps reduce cholesterol levels. The other levels listed are all below the nationally accepted levels for cholesterol and carry a lesser risk for CAD.
8. Which of the following actions is the first priority care for a client exhibiting signs and symptoms of coronary artery disease?
a. Decrease anxiety
b. Enhance myocardial oxygenation
c. Administer sublignual nitroglycerin
d. Educate the client about his symptoms
Enhancing mocardial oxygenation is always the first priority when a client exhibits signs and symptoms of cardiac compromise. Without adequate oxygen, the myocardium suffers damage. Sublingual nitorglycerin is administered to treat acute angina, but its administration isn't the first priority. Although educating the client and decreasing anxiety are important in care delivery, nether are priorities when a client is compromised.
9. Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of the following procedures?
a. Cardiac catheterization
b. Coronary artery bypass surgery
c. Oral medication administration
d. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
Oral medication administration is a noninvasive, medical treatment for coronary artery disease. Cardiac catheterization isn't a treatment but a diagnostic tool. Coronary artery bypass surgery and percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty are invasive, surgical treatments.
10. Prolonged occlusion of the right coronary artery produces an infarction in which of he following areas of the heart?
a. Anterior
b. Apical
c. Inferior
d. Lateral
The right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle, or the inferior portion of the heart. Therefore, prolonged occlusion could produce an infarction in that area. The right coronary artery doesn't supply the anterior portion ( left ventricle ), lateral portion ( some of the left ventricle and the left atrium ), or the apical portion ( left ventricle ) of the heart.
11. Which of the following is the most common symptom of myocardial infarction?
a. Chest pain
b. Dyspnea
c. Edema
d. Palpitations
The most common symptom of an MI is chest pain, resulting from deprivation of oxygen to the heart. Dyspnea is the second most common symptom, related to an increase in the metabolic needs of the body during an MI. Edema is a later sign of heart failure, often seen after an MI. Palpitations may result from reduced cardiac output, producing arrhythmias.
12. Which of the following landmarks is the corect one for obtaining an apical pulse?
a. Left intercostal space, midaxillary line
b. Left fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
c. Left second intercostal space, midclavicular line
d. Left seventh intercostal space, midclavicular line
The correct landmark for obtaining an apical pulse is the left intercostal space in the midclavicular line. This is the point of maximum impulse and the location of the left ventricular apex. The left second intercostal space in the midclavicular line is where the pulmonic sounds are auscultated. Normally, heart sounds aren't heard in the midaxillary line or the seventh intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
13. Which of the following systems is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration?
a. Cardiac
b. Gastrointestinal
c. Musculoskeletal
d. Pulmonary
Pulmonary pain is generally described by these symptoms. Musculoskeletal pain only increase with movement. Cardiac and GI pains don't change with respiration.
14. A murmur is heard at the second left intercostal space along the left sternal border.
Which valve area is this?
a. Aortic
b. Mitral
c. Pulmonic
d. Tricuspid
Abnormalities of the pulmonic valve are auscultated at the second left intercostal space along the left sternal border. Aortic valve abnormalities are heard at the second intercostal space, to the right of the sternum. Mitral valve abnormalities are heard at the fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line. Tricuspid valve abnormalities are heard at the third and fourth intercostal spaces along the sternal border.
15. Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of cardiac damage?
a. Lactate dehydrogenase
b. Complete blood count
c. Troponin I
d. Creatine kinase
Troponin I levels rise rapidly and are detectable within 1 hour of myocardial injury. Troponin I levels aren't detectable in people without cardiac injury. Lactate dehydrogenase is present in almost all body tissues and not specific to heart muscle. LDH isoenzymes are useful in diagnosing cardiac injury. CBC is obtained to review blood counts, and a complete chemistry is obtained to review electrolytes. Because CK levles may rise with skeletal muscle injury, CK isoenzymes are required to detect cardiac injury.
16. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with myocardial infarction?
a. To sedate the client
b. To decrease the client's pain
c. To decrease the client's anxiety
d. To decrease oxygen demand on the client's heart
Morphine is administered because it decreases myocardial oxygen demand. Morphine will also decrease pain and anxiety while causing sedation, but isn't primarily given for those reasons.
17. Which of the followng conditions is most commonly responsible for myocardial infarction?
a. Aneurysm
b. Heart failure
c. Coronary artery thrombosis
d. Renal failure
Coronary artery thrombosis causes occlusion of the artery, leading to myocardial death. An aneurysm is an outpouching of a vessel and doesn't cause an MI. Renal failure can be associated with MI but isn't a direct cause. Heart failure is usually the result of an MI.
18. What supplemental medication is most frequently ordered in conjuction with furosemide (Lasix)?
a. Chloride
b. Digoxin
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
Supplemental potassium is given with furosemide because of the potassium loss that occurs as a result of this diuretic. Chloride and sodium aren’t loss during diuresis. Digoxin acts to increase contractility but isn’t given routinely with furosemide.
19. After myocardial infarction, serum glucose levels and free fatty acids are both increase. What type of physiologic changes are these?
a. Electrophysiologic
b. Hematologic
c. Mechanical
d. Metabolic
Both glucose and fatty acids are metabolites whose levels increase after a myocardial infarction. Mechanical changes are those that affect the pumping action of the heart, and electro physiologic changes affect conduction. Hematologic changes would affect the blood.
20. Which of the following complications is indicated by a third heart sound (S3)?
a. Ventricular dilation
b. Systemic hypertension
c. Aortic valve malfunction
d. Increased atrial contractions
Rapid filling of the ventricles causes vasodilation that is auscultated as S3. Increased atrial contraction or systemic hypertension can result is a fourth heart sound. Aortic valve malfunction is heard as a murmur.
21. After an anterior wall
myocardial infarction, which of the following problems is indicated by auscultation of crackles in the lungs?
a. Left-sided heart failure
b. Pulmonic valve malfunction
c. Right-sided heart failure
d. Tricuspid valve malfunction
The left ventricle is responsible for the most of the cardiac output. An anterior wall MI may result in a decrease in left ventricular function. When the left ventricle doesn’t function properly, resulting in left-sided heart failure, fluid accumulates in the interstitial and alveolar spaces in the lungs and causes crackles. Pulmonic and tricuspid valve malfunction causes right-sided heart failure.
22. Which of the following diagnostic tools is most commonly used to determine the location of myocardial damage?
a. Cardiac catheterization
b. Cardiac enzymes
c. Echocardiogram
d. Electrocardiogram
The ECG is the quickest, most accurate, and most widely used tool to determine the location of myocardial infarction. Cardiac enzymes are used to diagnose MI but can’t determine the location. An echocardiogram is used most widely to view myocardial wall function after an MI has been diagnosed. Cardiac catheterization is an invasive study for determining coronary artery disease and may also indicate the location of myocardial damage, but the study may not be performed immediately.
23. What is the first intervention for a client experiencing myocardial infarction?
a. Administer morphine
b. Administer oxygen
c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
d. Obtain an electrocardiogram
Administering supplemental oxygen to the client is the first priority of care. The myocardium is deprived of oxygen during an infarction, so additional oxygen is administered to assist in oxygenation and prevent further damage. Morphine and sublingual nitroglycerin are also used to treat MI, but they’re more commonly administered after the oxygen. An ECG is the most common diagnostic tool used to evaluate MI.
24. What is the most appropriate nursing response to a myocardial infarction client who is fearful of dying?
a. "Tell me about your feeling right now."
b. "When the doctor arrives, everything will be fine."
c. "This is a bad situation, but you'll feel better soon."
d. "Please be assured we're doing everything we can to make you feel better."
Validation of the client’s feelings is the most appropriate response. It gives the client a feeling of comfort and safety. The other three responses give the client false hope. No one can determine if a client experiencing MI will feel or get better and therefore, these responses are inappropriate.
25. Which of the following classes of medications protects the ischemic myocardium by blocking catecholamines and sympathetic nerve stimulation?
a. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Narcotics
d. Nitrates
Beta-adrenergic blockers work by blocking beta receptors in the myocardium, reducing the response to catecholamines and sympathetic nerve stimulation. They protect the myocardium, helping to reduce the risk of another infarction by decreasing the workload of the heart and decreasing myocardial oxygen demand. Calcium channel blockers reduce the workload of the heart by decreasing the heart rate. Narcotics reduce myocardial oxygen demand, promote vasodilation, and decreased anxiety. Nitrates reduce myocardial oxygen consumption by decreasing left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (preload) and systemic vascular resistance (afterload).
26. What is the most common complication of a myocardial infarction?
a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Heart failure
c. Arrhythmias
d. Pericarditis
Arrhythmias, caused by oxygen deprivation to the myocardium, are the most common complication of an MI. cardiogenic shock, another complication of MI, is defined as the end stage of left ventricular dysfunction. The condition occurs in approximately 15% of clients with MI. Because the pumping function of the heart is compromised by an MI, heart failure is the second most common complication. Pericarditis most commonly results from a bacterial of viral infection but may occur after MI.
27. With which of the following disorders is jugular vein distention most prominent?
a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. Heart failure
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Pneumothorax
Elevated venous pressure, exhibited as jugular vein distention, indicates a failure of the heart to pump. Jugular vein distention isn’t a symptom of abdominal aortic aneurysm or pneumothorax. An MI, if severe enough, can progress to heart failure; however, in and of itself, an MI doesn’t cause jugular vein distention.
28. What position should the nurse place the head of the bed in to obtain the most accurate reading of jugular vein distention?
a. High-fowler's
b. Raised 10 degrees
c. Raised 30 degrees
d. Supine position
Jugular venous pressure is measured with a centimeter ruler to obtain the vertical distance between the sternal angle and the point of highest pulsation with the head of the bed inclined between 15 and 30 degrees. Inclined pressure can’t be seen when the client is supine or when the head of the bed is raised 10 degrees because the point that marks the pressure level is above the jaw (therefore, not visible). In high Fowler’s position, the veins would be barely discernible above the clavicle.
29. Which of the following parameters should be checked before administering digoxin?
a. Apical pulse
b. Blood pressure
c. Radial pulse
d. Respiratory rate
An apical pulse is essential or accurately assessing the client’s heart rate before administering digoxin. The apical pulse is the most accurate point in the body. Blood pressure is usually only affected if the heart rate is too low, in which case the nurse would withhold digoxin. The radial pulse can be affected by cardiac and vascular disease and therefore, won’t always accurately depict the heart rate. Digoxin has no effect on respiratory function.
30. Toxicity from which of the following medications may cause a client to see a green halo around lights?
a. Digoxin
b. Furosemide
c. Metoprolol
d. Enalapril
One of the most common signs of digoxin toxicity is the visual disturbance known as the green halo sign. The other medications aren’t associated with such an effect.
31. Which ofthe following symptoms is most commonly associated with left-sided heart failure?
a. Crackles
b. Arrhythmias
c. Hepatic engorgement
d. Hypotension
Crackles in the lungs are a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. These sounds are caused by fluid backing up into the pulmonary system. Arrhythmias can be associated with both right and left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure causes hypertension secondary to an increased workload on the system.
32. In which of the following disorders would the nurse expect to assess sacral eddema in bedridden client?
a. DM
b. Pulmonary emboli
c. Renal failure
d. Right-sided heart failure
The most accurate area on the body to assed dependent edema in a bedridden client is the sacral area. Sacral, or dependent, edema is secondary to right-sided heart failure. Diabetes mellitus, pulmonary emboli, and renal disease aren’t directly linked to sacral edema.
33. Which of the following symptoms might a client with right-sided heart failure exhibit?
a. Adequate urine output
b. Polyuria
c. Oliguria
d. Polydipsia
Inadequate deactivation of aldosterone by the liver after right-sided heart failure leads to fluid retention, which causes oliguria. Adequate urine output, polyuria, and polydipsia aren’t associated with right-sided heart failure.
34. Which of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac performance in clients with heat failure by increasing ventricular contractility?
a. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Diuretics
d. Inotropic agents
Inotropic agents are administered to increase the force of the heart’s contractions, thereby increasing ventricular contractility and ultimately increasing cardiac output. Beta-adrenergic blockers and calcium channel blockers decrease the heart rate and ultimately decrease the workload of the heart. Diuretics are administered to decrease the overall vascular volume, also decreasing the workload of the heart.
35. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system produces which of the following responses?
a. Bradycardia
b. Tachycardia
c. Hypotension
d. Decreased myocardial contractility
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes tachycardia and increased contractility. The other symptoms listed are related to the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for slowing the heart rate.
36. Which of the following conditions is most closely associated with weight gain, nausea, and a decrease in urine output?
a. Angina pectoris
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Left-sided heart failure
d. Right-sided heart failure
Weight gain, nausea, and a decrease in urine output are secondary effects of right-sided heart failure. Cardiomyopathy is usually identified as a symptom of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure causes primarily pulmonary symptoms rather than systemic ones. Angina pectoris doesn’t cause weight gain, nausea, or a decrease in urine output.
37. What is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. Atherosclerosis
b. DM
c. HPN
d. Syphilis
Atherosclerosis accounts for 75% of all abdominal aortic aneurysms. Plaques build up on the wall of the vessel and weaken it, causing an aneurysm. Although the other conditions are related to the development of an aneurysm, none is a direct cause.
38. In which of the following areas is an abdominal aortic aneurysm most commonly located?
a. Distal to the iliac arteries
b. Distal to the renal arteries
c. Adjacent to the aortic branch
d. Proximal to the renal arteries
The portion of the aorta distal to the renal arteries is more prone to an aneurysm because the vessel isn’t surrounded by stable structures, unlike the proximal portion of the aorta. Distal to the iliac arteries, the vessel is again surrounded by stable vasculature, making this an uncommon site for an aneurysm. There is no area adjacent to the aortic arch, which bends into the thoracic (descending) aorta.
39. A pulsating abdominal mass usually indicates which of the following conditions?
a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. Enlarged spleen
c. Gastic distention
d. Gastritis
The presence of a pulsating mass in the abdomen is an abnormal finding, usually indicating an outpouching in a weakened vessel, as in abdominal aortic aneurysm. The finding, however, can be normal on a thin person. Neither an enlarged spleen, gastritis, nor gastic distention cause pulsation.
40. What is the most common symptom in a client with abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. Abdominal pain
b. Diaphoresis
c. Headache
d. Upper back pain
Abdominal pain in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm results from the disruption of normal circulation in the abdominal region. Lower back pain, not upper, is a common symptom, usually signifying expansion and impending rupture of the aneurysm. Headache and diaphoresis aren’t associated with abdominal aortic aneurysm.
41. Which of the following symptoms usually signifies rapid expansion and impending rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. Abdominal pain
b. Absent pedal pulses
c. Angina
d. Lower back pain
Lower back pain results from expansion of the aneurysm. The expansion applies pressure in the abdominal cavity, and the pain is referred to the lower back. Abdominal pain is most common symptom resulting from impaired circulation. Absent pedal pulses are a sign of no circulation and would occur after a ruptured aneurysm or in peripheral vascular disease. Angina is associated with atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries.
42. What is the definitive test used to diagnose an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. Abdominal X-ray
b. Arteriogram
c. CT scan
d. Ultrasound
An arteriogram accurately and directly depicts the vasculature; therefore, it clearly delineates the vessels and any abnormalities. An abdominal aneurysm would only be visible on an X-ray if it were calcified. CT scan and ultrasound don’t give a direct view of the vessels and don’t yield as accurate a diagnosis as the arteriogram.
43. Which of the following complications is of greatest concern when caring for a preoperative abdominal aneurysm client?
a. HPN
b. Aneurysm rupture
c. Cardiac arrythmias
d. Diminished pedal pulses
Rupture of the aneurysm is a life-threatening emergency and is of the greatest concern for the nurse caring for this type of client. Hypertension should be avoided and controlled because it can cause the weakened vessel to rupture. Diminished pedal pulses, a sign of poor circulation to the lower extremities, are associated with an aneurysm but isn’t life threatening. Cardiac arrhythmias aren’t directly linked to an aneurysm.
44. Which of the following blood vessel layers may be damaged in a client with an aneurysm?
a. Externa
b. Interna
c. Media
d. Interna and Media
The factor common to all types of aneurysms is a damaged media. The media has more smooth muscle and less elastic fibers, so it’s more capable of vasoconstriction and vasodilation. The interna and externa are generally no damaged in an aneurysm.
45. When assessing a client for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, which area of the abdomen is most commonly palpated?
a. Right upper quadrant
b. Directly over the umbilicus
c. Middle lower abdomen to the left of the midline
d. Midline lower abdomen to the right of the midline
The aorta lies directly left of the umbilicus; therefore, any other region is inappropriate for palpation.
46. Which of the following conditions is linked to more than 50% of clients with abdominal aortic aneurysms?
a. DM
b. HPN
c. PVD
d. Syphilis
Continuous pressure on the vessel walls from hypertension causes the walls to weaken and an aneurysm to occur. Atherosclerotic changes can occur with peripheral vascular diseases and are linked to aneurysms, but the link isn’t as strong as it is with hypertension. Only 1% of clients with syphilis experience an aneurysm. Diabetes mellitus doesn’t have direct link to aneurysm.
47. Which of the following sounds is distinctly heard on auscultation over the abdominal region of an abdominal aortic aneurysm client?
a. Bruit b. Crackles c. Dullness d. Friction rubs
A bruit, a vascular sound resembling heart murmur, suggests partial arterial occlusion. Crackles are indicative of fluid in the lungs. Dullness is heard over solid organs, such as the liver. Friction rubs indicate inflammation of the peritoneal surface.
48. Which of the following groups of symptoms indicated a ruptured abdominal aneurysm?
a. Lower back pain, increased BP, decreased RBC, increased WBC
b. Severe lower back pain, decreased BP, decreased RBC, increased WBC
c. Severe lower back pain, decreased BP, decreased RBC, decreased WBC
d. Intermittent lower back pain, decreased BP, decreased RBC, increased WBC
Severe lower back pain indicates an aneurysm rupture, secondary to pressure being applied within the abdominal cavity. When rupture occurs, the pain is constant because it can’t be alleviated until the aneurysm is repaired. Blood pressure decreases due to the loss of blood. After the aneurysm ruptures, the vasculature is interrupted and blood volume is lost, so blood pressure wouldn’t increase. For the same reason, the RBC count is decreased – not increase. The WBC count increases as cells migrate to the site of injury.
49. Which of the following complications of an abdominal aortic repair is indicated by detection of a hematoma in the perineal area?
a. Hernia
b. Stage 1 pressure ulcer
c. Retroperitoneal rupture at the repair site
d. Rapid expansion of the aneurysm
Blood collects in the retroperitoneal space and is exhibited as a hematoma in the perineal area. This rupture is most commonly caused by leakage at the repair site. A hernia doesn’t cause vascular disturbances, nor does a pressure ulcer. Because no bleeding occurs with rapid expansion of the aneurysm, a hematoma won’t form.
50. Which hereditary disease is most closely linked to aneurysm?
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Marfan's syndrome
d. Myocardial infarction
Marfan’s syndrome results in the degeneration of the elastic fibers of the aortic media. Therefore, clients with the syndrome are more likely to develop an aortic aneurysm. Although cystic fibrosis is hereditary, it hasn’t been linked to aneurysms. Lupus erythematosus isn’t hereditary. Myocardial infarction is neither hereditary nor a disease.
51. Which of the following treatments is the definitive one for a ruptured aneurysm?
a. Antihypertensive medication administration
b. Aortogram
c. Beta-adrenergic blocker administration
d. Surgical intervention
When the vessel ruptures, surgery is the only intervention that can repair it. Administration of antihypertensive medications and beta-adrenergic blockers can help control hypertension, reducing the risk of rupture. An aortogram is a diagnostic tool used to detect an aneurysm.
52. Which of the following heart muscle diseases is unrelated to other cardiovascular disease?
a. Cardiomyopathy
b. Coronary artery disease
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Pericardial Effusion
Cardiomyopathy isn’t usually related to an underlying heart disease such as atherosclerosis. The etiology in most cases is unknown. Coronary artery disease and myocardial infarction are directly related to atherosclerosis. Pericardial effusion is the escape of fluid into the pericardial sac, a condition associated with pericarditis and advanced heart failure.
53. Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy can be associated with childbirth?
a. Dilated
b. Hypertrophic
c. Myocarditis
d. Restrictive
Although the cause isn’t entirely known, cardiac dilation and heart failure may develop during the last month of pregnancy of the first few months after birth. The condition may result from a preexisting cardiomyopathy not apparent prior to pregnancy. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an abnormal symmetry of the ventricles that has an unknown etiology but a strong familial tendency. Myocarditis isn’t specifically associated with childbirth. Restrictive cardiomyopathy indicates constrictive pericarditis; the underlying cause is usually myocardial.
54. Septal involvement occurs in which type of cardiomyopathy?
a. Congestive
b. Dilated
c. Hypertrophic
d. Restrictive
In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, hypertrophy of the ventricular septum – not the ventricle chambers – is apparent. This abnormality isn’t seen in other types of cardiomyopathy.
55. Which of the following recurring conditions most commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy?
a. Heart failure
b. DM
c. MI
d. Pericardial effusion
Because the structure and function of the heart muscle is affected, heart failure most commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy. Myocardial infarction results from prolonged myocardial ischemia due to reduced blood flow through one of the coronary arteries. Pericardial effusion is most predominant in clients with percarditis. Diabetes mellitus is unrelated to cardiomyopathy.
56. What is the term used to describe an enlargement of the heart muscle?
a. Cardiomegaly
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Myocarditis
d. Pericarditis
Cardiomegaly denotes an enlarged heart muscle. Cardiomyopathy is a heart muscle disease of unknown origin. Myocarditis refers to inflammation of heart muscle. Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart.
57. Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions?
a. Pericarditis
b. Hypertension
c. Obliterative
d. Restricitive
These are the classic symptoms of heart failure. Pericarditis is exhibited by a feeling of fullness in the chest and auscultation of a pericardial friction rub. Hypertension is usually exhibited by headaches, visual disturbances and a flushed face. Myocardial infarction causes heart failure but isn’t related to these symptoms.
58. Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy does not affect cardiac output?
a. Dilated b. Hypertrophic c. Restrictive d. Obliterative
Cardiac output isn’t affected by hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because the size of the ventricle remains relatively unchanged. Dilated cardiomyopathy, and restrictive cardomyopathy all decrease cardiac output.
59. Which of the following cardiac conditions does a fourth heart sound (S4) indicate?
a. Dilated aorta
b. Normally functioning heart
c. Decreased myocardial contractility
d. Failure of the ventricle to eject all the blood during systole
An S4 occurs as a result of increased resistance to ventricular filling adterl atrial contraction. This increased resistance is related to decrease compliance of the ventricle. A dilated aorta doesn’t cause an extra heart sound, though it does cause a murmur. Decreased myocardial contractility is heard as a third heart sound. An s4 isn’t heard in a normally functioning heart.
60. Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely used in the treatment of cardiomyopathy?
a. Antihypertensive
b. Beta-adrenergic blockers
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Nitrates
By decreasing the heart rate and contractility, beta-adrenergic blockers improve myocardial filling and cardiac output, which are primary goals in the treatment of cardiomyopathy. Antihypertensives aren’t usually indicated because they would decrease cardiac output in clients who are often already hypotensive. Calcium channel blockers are sometimes used for the same reasons as beta-adrenergic blockers; however, they aren’t as effective as beta-adrenergic blockers and cause increase hypotension. Nitrates aren’t’ used because of their dilating effects, which would further compromise the myocardium.
Thursday, March 08, 2007 | | 0 Comments
Funda Test Drill II
CONTENT OUTLINE
1. Illness
2. Infection and Asepsis
3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation
1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?
A. Pupils will constrict
B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase
2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?
A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion
3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except
A. One should be held responsible for his condition
B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help
9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident
A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks
10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology
11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease
A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology
12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?
A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic
13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as
1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative
A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5
14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease
A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute
15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation
A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic
16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?
A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television
28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?
A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers
29. The following are concept of health:
1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4
30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is
A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers
31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE
A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis
34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another
A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier
35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.
A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host
36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave
37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores
A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis
38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases
A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission
42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?
1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1
43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via
A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity
45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by
A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses
46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection
A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization
48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except
A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin
49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing
52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing
A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap
53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….
A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms
54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is
A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand
55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds
56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?
A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml
57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?
A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization
58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying
A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree Celsius
59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body
A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation
60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?
A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection
61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis
A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?
A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable
63. Which of the following is true about masks?
A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter
64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?
A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan
65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an
A. Puncture proof container
B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”
66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?
A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it
67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?
A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers
B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are reusable
68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?
A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?
A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do
74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except
A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it
75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?
A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.
76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?
A. The dominant hand
B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience
77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?
A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field
78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?
A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on
79. Which gloves should you remove first?
A. The glove of the non dominant hand
B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary
80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5
81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5
82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?
A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches
83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?
A. The tip should always be lower than the handle
B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward
84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?
1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth
2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3
85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to prevent contamination?
1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish
2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4
86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?
A. Wash gloved hand first
B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves
87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?
A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses
B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium
88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.
A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers
89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is not a nervous energy
B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress
90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress
91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?
A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue
92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response
A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person
98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
Thursday, March 08, 2007 | Labels: funda | 0 Comments
