Angelite Nurses

Mr. Duffy is admitted to the CCU with a diagnosis of R/O MI. He presented in the ER with a typical description of pain associated with an MI, and is now cold and clammy, pale and dyspneic. He has an IV of D5W running, and is complaining of chest pain. Oxygen therapy has not been started, and he is not on the monitor. He is frightened.

1. The nurse is aware of several important tasks that should all be done immediately in order to give Mr. Duffy the care he needs. Which of the following nursing interventions will relieve his current myocardial ischemia?

a. stool softeners, rest
b. O2 therapy, analgesia
c. Reassurance, cardiac monitoring
d. Adequate fluid intake, low-fat diet

2. During the first three days that Mr. Duffy is in the CCU, a number of diagnostic blood tests are obtained. Which of the following patterns of cardiac enzyme elevation are most common following an MI?

a. SGOT, CK, and LDH are all elevated immediately.
b. SGOT rises 4-6 hours after infarction with CK and LDH rising slowly 24 hours later.
c. CK peaks first (12-24 hours), followed by the SGOT (peaks in 24-36 hours) and then the LDH (peaks 3-4 days).
d. CK peaks first and remains elevated for 1 to 2 weeks.

3. On his second day in CCU Mr. Duffy suffers a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia. Considering his diagnosis, which is the most probable arrhythmia?

a. atrial tachycardia
b. ventricular fibrillation
c. atrial fibrillation
d. heart block

4. Mr. Duffy is placed on digitalis on discharge from the hospital. The nurse planning with him for his discharge should educate him as to the purpose and actions of his new medication. What should she or he teach Mr. Duffy to do at home to monitor his reaction to this medication?

a. take his blood pressure
b. take his radial pulse for one minute
c. check his serum potassium (K) level
d. weigh himself everyday

You are speaking to an elderly group of diabetics in the OPD about eye health and the importance of visits to the ophthalmologist.

5. You decide to discuss glaucoma prevention. Which of the following diagnostic tests should these clients request from their care provider?

a. fluorescein stain
b. snellen’s test
c. tonometry
d. slit lamp

6. You also explain common eye changes associated with aging. One of these is presbyopia, which is:

a. Refractive error that prevents light rays from coming to a single focus on the retina.
b. Poor distant vision
c. Poor near vision
d. A gradual lessening of the power of accommodation

7. Some of the diabetic clients are interested in understanding what is visualized during funduscopic examination. During your discussion you describe the macular area as:

a. Head of the optic nerve, seen on the nasal side of the field, lighter in color than the retina.
b. The area of central vision, seen on the temporal side of the optic disc, which is quite avascular.
c. Area where the central retinal artery and vein appear on the retina.
d. Reddish orange in color, sometimes stippled.

8. One of the clients has noted a raised yellow plaque on the nasal side of the conjunctiva. You explain that this is called:

a. a pinguecula, which is normal slightly raised fatty structure under the conjunctiva that may gradually increase with age.
b. Icterus, which may be due to liver disease.
c. A pterygium, which will interfere with vision.
d. Ciliary flush caused by congestion of the ciliary artery.

You are caring for Mr. Kaplan who has chronic renal failure (uremia)

9. You know that all but one of the following may eventually result in uremia. Which option is not implicated?

a. glomerular disease
b. uncontrolled hypertension
c. renal disease secondary to drugs, toxins, infections, or radiations
d. all of the above

10. You did the initial assessment on Mr. Kaplan when he came to your unit. What classical signs and symptoms did you note?

a. fruity- smelling breath.
b. Weakness, anorexia, pruritus
c. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
d. Ruddy complexion

11. Numerous drugs have been used on Mr. Kaplan in an attempt to stabilize him. Regarding his diagnosis and management of his drugs, you know that:

a. The half-life of many drugs is decreased in uremia; thus dosage may have to be increased to be effective.
b. Drug toxicity is a major concern in uremia; individualization of therapy and often a decrease in dose is essential.
c. Drug therapy is not usually affected by this diagnosis
d. Precautions should be taken with prescription drugs, but most OTC medications are safe for him to use.

You are assigned to cardiac clinic to fill in for a colleague for 3 weeks. You begin by reviewing assessment of the cardiovascular system in your mind and asking yourself the following:

12. The point of maximum impulse (PMI) is an important landmark in the cardiac exam. Which statement best describes the location of the PMI in the healthy adult?

a. Base of the heart, 5th intercostal space, 7-9 cm to the left of the midsternal line.
b. Base of the heart, 7th intercostal space, 7-9 cm to the left of the midsternal line.
c. Apex of the heart, intercostal space, 7-9 cm to the left of the midsternal line.
d. Apex of the heart, intercostal space, 7-9 cm to the left of the midsternal line.

13. During the physical examination of the well adult client, the health care provider auscultates the heart. When the stethoscope is placed on the 5th intercostal space along the left sternal border, which valve closure is best evaluated?

a. Tricuspid
b. Pulmonic
c. Aortic
d. Mitral

14. The pulmonic component of which heart sound is best heard at the 2nd LICS at the LSB?

a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4

15. The coronary arteries furnish blood supply to the myocardium. Which of the following is a true statement relative to the coronary circulation?

a. the right and left coronary arteries are the first of many branches off the ascending aorta
b. blood enters the right and left coronary arteries during systole only
c. the right coronary artery forms almost a complete circle around the heart, yet supplies only the right ventricle
d. the left coronary artery has two main branches, the left anterior descending and left circumflex: both supply the left ventricle

Sally Baker, a 40-year-old woman, is admitted to the hospital with an established diagnosis of mitral stenosis. She is scheduled for surgery to repair her mitral valve.

16. Ms. Baker has decided to have surgical correction of her stenosed valve at this time because her subjective complaints of dyspnea, hemoptysis, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea have become unmanageable. These complaints are probably due to:

a. thickening of the pericardium
b. right heart failure
c. pulmonary hypertension
d. left ventricular hypertrophy

17. On physical exam of Ms. Baker, several abnormal findings can be observed. Which of the following is not one of the usual objective findings associated with mitral stenosis?

a. low-pitched rumbling diastolic murmur, precordial thrill, and parasternal lift
b. small crepitant rales at the bases of the lungs
c. weak, irregular pulse, and peripheral and facial cyanosis in severe disease
d. chest x-ray shows left ventricular hypertrophy

18. You are seeing more clients with diagnoses of mitral valve prolapse. You know those mitral valve prolapse is usually a benign cardiac condition, but may be associated with atypical chest pain. This chest pain is probably caused by:

a. ventricular ischemia
b. dysfunction of the left ventricle
c. papillary muscle ischemia and dysfunction
d. cardiac arrythmias

Mr. Oliver, a long term heavy smoker, is admitted to the hospital for a diagnostic workup. His possible diagnosis is cancer of the lung.

19. The most common lethal cancer in males between their fifth and seventh decades is:

a. cancer of the prostate
b. cancer of the lung
c. cancer of the pancreas
d. cancer of the bowel

20. Of the four basic cell types of lung cancer listed below, which is always associated with smoking?

a. adenocarcinoma
b. squamous cell carcinoma (epidermoid)
c. undifferenciated carcinoma
d. bronchoalveolar carcinoma

21. Chemotherapy may be used in combination with surgery in the treatment of lung cancer. Special nursing considerations with chemotherapy include all but which of the following?

a. Helping the client deal with depression secondary to the diagnosis and its treatment
b. Explaining that the reactions to chemotherapy are minimal
c. Careful observation of the IV site of the administration of the drugs
d. Careful attention to blood count results

22. Which of the following operative procedures of the thorax is paired with the correct definition?

a. Pneumonectomy: removal of the entire lung
b. Wedge resection: removal of one or more lobes of a lung
c. Decortication: removal of the reibs or sections of ribs
d. Thoracoplasty: removal of fibrous membrane that develops over visceral pleura as a result of emphysema

Mr. Liberatore, age 76, is admitted to your unit. He has a past medical history of hypertension, DM, hyperlipidemia. Recently he has had several episodes where he stops talking in midsentence and stares into space. Today the episode lasted for 15 minutes. The admission diagnosis is impending CVA.

23. The episodes Mr. Liberatore has been experiencing are probably:

a. small cerebral hemorrhages
b. TIA’s or transient ischemic attacks
c. Secondary to hypoglycemia
d. Secondary to hyperglycemia

24. Mr. Liberatore suffers a left sided CVA. He is right handed. The nurse should expect:

a. left-sided paralysis
b. visual loss
c. no alterations in speech
d. no impairment of bladder function

25. Upper motor neuron disease may be manifested in which of the following clinical signs?

a. spastic paralysis, hyperreflexia, presence of babinski reflex
b. flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia
c. muscle atrophy, fasciculations
d. decreased or absent voluntary movement

Julie, an 18-year-old girl, is brought into the ER by her mother with the chief complaint of sudden visual disturbance that began half an hour ago and was described as double vision and flashing lights.

26. During your assessment of Julie she tells you all visual symptoms are gone but that she now has a severe pounding headache over her left eye. You suspect Julie may have:

a. a tension headache
b. the aura and headache of migraine
c. a brain tumor
d. a conversion reaction

27. You explain to Julie and her mother that migraine headaches are caused by:

a. an allergic response triggered by stress
b. dilation of cerebral arteries
c. persistent contraction of the muscles of the head, neck and face
d. increased intracranial pressure

28. A thorough history reveals that hormonal changes associated with menstruation may have triggered Julie’s migraine attack. In investigating Julie’s history what factors would be least significant in migraine?

a. seasonal allergies
b. trigger foods such as alcohol, MSG, chocolate
c. family history of migraine
d. warning sign of onset, or aura

29. A client with muscle contraction headache will exhibit a pattern different for Julie’s. Which of the following is more compatible with tension headache?

a. severe aching pain behind both eyes
b. headache worse when bending over
c. a bandlike burning around the neck
d. feeling of tightness bitemporally, occipitally, or in the neck

Mr. Snyder is admitted to your unit with a brain tumor. The type of tumor he has is currently unknown. You begin to think about the way brain tumors are classified.

30. Glioma is an intracranial tumor. Which of the following statements about gliomas do you know to be false?

a. 50% of all intracranial tumors are gliomas
b. gliomas are usually benign
c. they grow rapidly and often cannot be totally excised from the surrounding tissue
d. most glioma victims die within a year after diagnosis

31. Acoustic neuromas produce symptoms of progressive nerve deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo due to pressure and eventual destruction of:

a. CN5
b. CN7
c. CN8
d. The ossicles

32. Whether Mr Snyder’s tumor is benign or malignant, it will eventually cause increased intracranial pressure. Signs and symptoms of increasing intracranial pressure may include all of the following except:

a. headache, nausea, and vomiting
b. papilledema, dizziness, mental status changes
c. obvious motor deficits
d. increased pulse rate, drop in blood pressure

33. Mr Snyder is scheduled for surgery in the morning, and you are surprised to find out that there is no order for an enema. You assess the situation and conclude that the reason for this is:

a. Mr. Snyder has had some mental changes due to the tumor and would find an enema terribly traumatic
b. Straining to evacuate the enema might increase the intracranial pressure
c. Mr. Snyder had been on clear liquids and then was NPO for several days, so an enema is not necessary
d. An oversight and you call the physician to obtain the order

34. Postoperatively Mr. Snyder needs vigilant nursing care including all of the following except:

a. Keeping his head flat
b. Assessments q ½ hour of LOC, VS, papillary responses, and mental status
c. Helping him avoid straining at stool, vomiting, or coughing
d. Providing a caring, supportive atmosphere for him and his family

35. Potential postintracranial surgery problems include all but which of the following?

a. increased ICP
b. extracranial hemorrhage
c. seizures
d. leakage of cerebrospinal fluid

Mrs. Hogan, a 43-year-old woman, is admitted to your unit for cholecystectomy.

36. You are responsible for teaching Mrs. Hogan deep breathing and coughing exercises. Why are these exercises especially important for Mrs. Hogan?

a. they prevent postoperative atelectasis and pneumonia
b. the incision in gallbladder surgery is in the subcostal area, which makes the client reluctant to take a deep breath and cough
c. because she is probably overweight and will be less willing to breathe, cough, and move postoperatively

37. On the morning of Mrs. Hogan’s planned cholecystectomy she awakens with a pain in her right scapular area and thinks she slept in poor position. While doing the preop check list you note that on her routine CB report her WBC is 15,000. Your responsibility at this point is:

a. to notify the surgeon at once; this is an elevated WBC indicating an inflammatory reaction
b. to record this finding in a prominent place on the preop checklist and in your preop notes
c. to call the laboratory for a STAT repeat WBC
d. none. This is not an unusual finding

38. Mrs. Hogan is scheduled for surgery 2 days later and is to be given atropine 0.3 mg IM and Demerol 50 mg IM one hour preoperatively. Which nursing actions follow the giving of the preop medication?

a. have her void soon after receiving the medication
b. allow her family to be with her before the medication takes effect
c. bring her valuables to the nursing station
d. reinforce preop teaching

39. Mrs. Hogan is transported to the recovery room following her cholecystectomy. As you continue to check her vital signs you note a continuing trend in Mrs. Hogan’s status: her BP is gradually dropping and her pulse rate is increasing. Your most appropriate nursing action is to:

a. order whole blood for Mrs. Hogan from the lab
b. increase IV fluid rate of infusion and place in trendelenburg position
c. immediately report signs of shock to the head nurse and/or surgeon and monitor VS closely
d. place in lateral sims position to facilitate breathing

40. Mrs. Hogan returns to your clinical unit following discharge from the recovery room. Her vital signs are stable and her family is with her. Postoperative leg exercises should be inititated:

a. after the physician writes the order
b. after the family leaves
c. if Mrs. Hogan will not be ambulated early
d. stat

41. An oropharyngeal airway may:

a. Not be used in a conscious patient.
b. Cause airway obstruction.
c. Prevent a patient from biting and occluding an ET tube.
d. Be inserted "upside down" into the mouth opening and then rotated into the proper orientation as it is advanced into the mouth.
e. All of the above.

42. Endotracheal intubation:

a. Can be attempted for up to 2 minutes before you need to stop and ventilate the patient.
b. Reduces the risk of aspiration of gastric contents.
c. Should be performed with the neck flexed forward making the chin touch the chest.
d. Should be performed after a patient is found to be not breathing and two breaths have been given but before checking for a pulse.

43. When giving bag-valve mask ventilations:

a. Rapid and forceful ventilations are desirable so that adequate ventilation will be assured
b. Effective ventilations can always be given by one person.
c. Cricoid pressure may prevent gastric inflation during ventilations.
d. Tidal volumes will always be larger than when giving mouth to pocket mask ventilations.

44. If breath sounds are only heard on the right side after intubation:

a. Extubate, ventilate for 30 seconds then try again.
b. The patient probably only has one lung, the right.
c. You have intubated the stomach.
d. Pull the tube back and listen again.

45. An esophageal obturator airway (EOA):

a. Can be inserted by any person trained in ACLS.
b. Requires visualization of the trachea before insertion.
c. Never causes regurgitation.
d. Should not be used with a conscious person, pediatric patients, or patients who have swallowed caustic substances.

46. During an acute myocardial infarct (MI):

a. A patient may have a normal appearing ECG.
b. Chest pain will always be present.
c. A targeted history is rarely useful in making the diagnosis of MI.
d. The chest pain is rarely described as crushing, pressing, or heavy.

47. The most common lethal arrhythmia in the first hour of an MI is:

a. Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia
b. Asystole
c. Ventricular fibrillation
d. First degree heart block.

48. Which of the following is true about verapamil?

a. It is used for wide-complex tachycardia.
b. It may cause a drop in blood pressure.
c. It is a first line drug for Pulseless Electrical Activity.
d. It is useful for treatment of severe hypotension.

49. Atropine:

a. Is always given for a heart rate less than 60 bpm.
b. Cannot be given via ET tube.
c. Has a maximum total dosage of 0.03-0.04 mg/kg IV in the setting of cardiac arrest.
d. When given IV, should always be given slowly.

50. Asystole should not be "defibrillated."

a. True
b. False